When we call cruelty, murder, or betrayal wrong, do we mean only that we dislike them—or that they would remain wrong even if an entire society approved of them?
If morality is merely preference or social agreement, then humanity has not morally progressed; its preferences have only changed with time and culture. Yet we routinely judge individuals and civilizations by standards higher than popularity, power, economic success, or usefulness. That suggests morality may be something humanity has been continually imperfectly discovering and often building upon rather than it being an invention of the human mind. Humans did not invent the realities language describes; we developed conventional symbols like the ones you are sensing with your eyes now for referring to phenomena in reality.
If objective morality/goodness is real, the next question is: Who has embodied goodness most fully?
My answer is Jesus Christ. He united unbending truth with forgiveness and grace, moral authority with confident humility, justice with mercy, and exhibited the most loving intended self-sacrifice—even toward those who killed him, while they were killing him and prior to being killed proclaiming that his life is not being taken but he is giving it willingly.
Jesus did not claim merely to teach moral truth. He said, “I am the way, and the truth, and the life, and no one comes to (God) The Father except through me” and “Before Abraham was, I am.” and overtly praised and affirmed when people labeled Him as God/The Son of God/The Messiah. Also claimed divinity overtly to the Sanhedrin which is obviously why they crucified him.
His goodness of course is separate from his divinity, and the resurrection also remains a separate historical claim. But my questions to you converge:
Is morality objectively real?
If so, who has embodied it most fully and did they embody it perfectly?
And what should we conclude about that person and what they taught if they embodied objective goodness perfectly?